LIAT AJA DISINI GANNNN...........
http://farid-subhi.blogspot.com/2012/05/jawaban-ccna-2-final-exam.html
http://farid-subhi.blogspot.com/2012/05/jawaban-ccna-2-final-exam.html
Tampilkan postingan dengan label CCNA 2. Tampilkan semua postingan
Tampilkan postingan dengan label CCNA 2. Tampilkan semua postingan
Jumat, 23 Januari 2015
CCNA 2 CAPTER 9
Posted by Ferisicity.blogspot.com on 23.06
1. A user can access any web page on the Internet but cannot access e-mail. What troubleshooting method would be most efficient for troubleshooting this issue?
top-down
bottom-up
divide-and-conquer
impossible to determine from this information
2. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ping
show arp
traceroute
show ip route
show controllers
show cdp neighbor
3.
Refer to the exhibit. Host H1 on the LAN is not able to access the FTP server across the Internet. Which two configuration statements are causing this problem? (Choose two.)
There is no route to the Internet.
The IP address on Fa0/0 is incorrect.
The IP address on S0/0/0 is incorrect.
The NAT command on the Fa0/0 interface is applied in the wrong direction.
The NAT command on the S0/0/0 interface is applied in the wrong direction.
4.
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)
FastEthernet0/0 is functioning correctly.
The shutdown command has been applied on Serial0/0.
FastEthernet0/0 was configured by the startup-config at bootup.
Serial0/0 is experiencing a Layer 1 network problem.
FastEthernet0/1 is experiencing a Layer 2 network problem.
Because the port is down, Serial0/1 has an IP address that does not show in the output.
5. A user is having trouble accessing the Internet. A network administrator begins by verifying that the IP address of the PC is correctly configured. Next the administrator pings the default gateway. Based on this information, what type of troubleshooting method is the administrator employing?
top-down
bottom-up
divide-and-conquer
impossible to determine from this information
6. Which two conditions identify issues that are confined to Layer 1? (Choose two.)
cables that exceed maximum length
encapsulation errors
viruses and worms that create excessive broadcast traffic
poor termination of cables
receiving "line protocol down" messages on the router console
7.
Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 10.12.10.0/24 network are unable to access anyone on the 10.10.10.0/24 network. What two problems exist in the network? (Choose two.)
R2 is using a different version of RIP.
R2 has a missing network statement.
R1 has an incorrect network statement.
R3 has an incorrect network statement.
A routing loop is occurring between all three routers.
8.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the IP address configuration?
Interfaces Fa0/0 and Fa0/1 can be in the same subnet.
Interface Fa0/0 and NetworkA can be in the same subnet.
Interface Fa0/0 and NetworkB can be in the same subnet.
Interface Fa0/1 and NetworkB can be in the same subnet.
9. An ISP help desk technician receives a call from a customer who reports that no one at their business can reach any websites or get their e-mail. After testing the communication line and finding everything fine, the technician instructs the customer to run nslookup from the command prompt. What does the technician suspect is causing the customer’s problem?
improper IP address configuration on the host
hardware failure of the ISR used to connect the customer to the ISP
bad cables or connections at the customer site
failure of DNS to resolve names to IP addresses
10.
Refer to the exhibit. The PC is trying to ping router B at 192.168.2.2, but it fails. What is the problem?
The PC is on the wrong subnet.
The default gateway on the PC should be 192.168.1.1.
The default gateway should be 192.168.2.2.
The DNS server is incorrect.
The IP address for Fa0/0 on router A is incorrect.
11. Which problem is associated with Layer 4 of the OSI model?
A firewall is blocking Telnet packets to a host.
A host has an incorrect IP address.
A router has no route to a host.
A host sent a malformed HTTP request.
12. How many usable host addresses does the 192.168.1.0/25 subnet provide?
254
128
127
126
64
62
13. An administrator is creating a lab to simulate a WAN connection. During the setup, the administrator notices that there are different encapsulation types on each end of the serial connection. At what layer of the OSI model is this problem occurring?
Layer 2
Layer 4
Layer 5
Layer 6
14.
Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address is misconfigured and is causing connectivity problems between hosts and servers?
HostA
HostB
Server1
Server2
R1 Fa0/0
R1 Fa0/1
15. A network technician has isolated a problem at the transport layer of the OSI model. Which question would provide further information about the problem?
Do you have a firewall that is configured on your PC?
Do you have a link light on your network card?
Is your PC configured to obtain addressing information using DHCP?
What default gateway address is configured in your TCP/IP settings?
Can you ping ccnaanswers.com?
16. A PC is able to reach devices that are located both inside and outside the network. However, when trying to reach an FTP server that is located on the same subnet, the PC fails to make a connection. The administrator has several other PCs that are located in the same subnet try a connection to the FTP server and they are successful. Which troubleshooting tool can be used to determine the problem between the PC and the FTP server?
cable tester
digital multimeter
protocol analyzer
network analyzer
17. A network administrator is upgrading a Cisco 1841 router by adding a WIC-2T module card. Which show command can the administrator use to verify that the module is correctly recognized by the router?
show flash:
show version
show ip route
show startup-configuration
18. A network administrator plugs a new PC into a switch port. The LED for that port changes to solid green. What statement best describes the current status of the port?
There is a duplex mismatch error.
There is a link fault error. This port is unable to forward frames.
The port is operational and ready to transmit packets.
This port has been disabled by management and is unable to forward frames.
The flash memory is busy.
19.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is in the process of sending a preconfigured text file to a router. When the administrator pastes the configuration into the router, an error message appears. What is the problem with the IP addressing scheme?
Serial0/0 is configured with a network address.
The IP address on FastEthernet0/0 overlaps with the IP on FastEthernet0/1.
Serial0/1 is configured with a broadcast address.
The IP address on FastEthernet0/0 overlaps with the IP on Serial0/1.
20.
Refer to the exhibit. What are two possible causes for the interface status? (Choose two.)
The loopback address is not set.
The encapsulation type is mismatched.
A cable is not attached to the interface.
Keepalive messages are not being received.
The interface is administratively shut down.
. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ans:
ping
traceroute
show ip route
CCNA2 CAPTER 8
Posted by Ferisicity.blogspot.com on 22.53
1. Which benefit does SSH offer over Telnet when remotely managing a router?
*encryption
TCP usage
authorization
connection using six VTY lines
2. Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information?
query
broadcast
ICMP ping
*trap
poll
3. What is the term used to describe the area of a network which stores servers that are accessible to any users from the Internet?
"clean" LAN
intranet
*DMZ
extranet
4. Before a technician upgrades a server, it is necessary to back up all data. Which type of backup is necessary to ensure that all data is backed up?
daily
differential
*full
incremental
partial
5. A company wants to configure a firewall to monitor all channels of communication and allow only traffic that is part of a known connection. Which firewall configuration should be deployed?
packet filtering
proxy
*stateful packet inspection
stateless packet inspection
6. Which three protocols describe methods that can be used to secure user data for transmission across the internet? (Choose three.)
SMTP
*IPSEC
*SSL
*HTTPS
FTP
TFTP
7. What network layer security protocol can secure any application layer protocol used for communication?
HTTPS
IMAP
FTPS
*IPSEC
TLS
8. Which three items are normally included when a log message is generated by a syslog client and forwarded to a syslog server? (Choose three.)
*date and time of message
*ID of sending device
length of message
*message ID
checksum field
community ID
9. What AAA component assigns varying levels of rights to users of network resources?
auditing
accounting
*authorization
access control
authentication
acknowledgement
10. A network administrator is assigning network permissions to new groups of users and employing the principle of least privilege. Which two actions should the administrator take? (Choose two.)
*Provide users with only the access to resources required to do their jobs.
*Provide the minimum level of permissions required for users to do their jobs.
Remove all permissions from the users and grant permissions as they are requested.
Allow users to decide how much permission they need to accomplish their job tasks.
Provide full access to the users and gradually remove privileges over time.
11. A hacker has gained access to sensitive network files. In analyzing the attack, it is found that the hacker gained access over a wireless segment of the network. It is further discovered that the only security measure in place on the wireless network is MAC Address Filtering. How is it likely that the hacker gained access to the network?
The hacker used a software tool to crack the shared hexadecimal wireless key.
*The hacker obtained the MAC address of a permitted host, and cloned it on his wireless laptop NIC.
The attacker mounted a denial of service attack to overwhelm the firewall before penetrating the wireless LAN.
The hacker gained wireless access to the MAC address database and added his own MAC address to the list of permitted addresses.
12. What is the advantage of using WPA to secure a wireless network?
It uses a 128-bit pre-shared hexadecimal key to prevent unauthorized wireless access.
*It uses an advanced encryption key that is never transmitted between host and access point.
It is supported on older wireless hardware, thus providing maximum compatibility with enterprise equipment.
It requires the MAC address of a network device that is requesting wireless access to be on a list of approved MAC addresses.
13. hat are two potential problems with using tape media to back up server data? (Choose two.)
Tape is not a cost-effective means of backing up data.
Data tapes are difficult to store offsite.
*Data tapes are prone to failure and must be replaced often.
*Tape drives require regular cleaning to maintain reliability.
Backup logs are not available with tape backup solutions.
14. Refer to the exhibit. While the user on router A is connected to router B through telnet, the CTRL-SHIFT-6 x keystroke is entered. What effect does this have?
It logs the user out of router A.
*It suspends the connection to router B.
It closes the connection to router B.
It logs the user out of both router A and router B.
15. What two measures help to verify that server backups have been successfully completed? (Choose two.)
*reviewing backup logs
*performing a trial restore
performing full backups only
replacing tape backup with hard disk-based backup
using an autoloader when backups require more than one tape
16. Which three applications can be used for in-band management? (Choose three.)
FTP
*HTTP
*SNMP
*Telnet
TFTP
DHCP
17. Which two characteristics of network traffic are being monitored if a network technician configures the company firewall to operate as a packet filter? (Choose two.)
*ports
physical addresses
packet size
frame sequence number
*protocols
18. Which AAA service provides detailed reporting and monitoring of network user behavior, and also keeps a record of every access connection and device configuration change across the network?
authentication
accreditation
*accounting
authorization
19. While downloading an IOS image from a TFTP server, an administrator sees long strings of exclamation marks (!) output to the console. What does this mean?
*The transfer is working.
The TFTP server is not responding.
The IOS file is corrupt and is failing the checksum verification.
There is not enough space in flash to hold the image.
20. What does the command copy flash tftp accomplish?
*It copies the IOS in flash to a TFTP server.
It copies the startup-configuration file in flash to a TFTP server.
It copies the running-configuration file in flash to a TFTP server.
It copies the configuration register settings in flash to a TFTP server.
*encryption
TCP usage
authorization
connection using six VTY lines
2. Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information?
query
broadcast
ICMP ping
*trap
poll
3. What is the term used to describe the area of a network which stores servers that are accessible to any users from the Internet?
"clean" LAN
intranet
*DMZ
extranet
4. Before a technician upgrades a server, it is necessary to back up all data. Which type of backup is necessary to ensure that all data is backed up?
daily
differential
*full
incremental
partial
5. A company wants to configure a firewall to monitor all channels of communication and allow only traffic that is part of a known connection. Which firewall configuration should be deployed?
packet filtering
proxy
*stateful packet inspection
stateless packet inspection
6. Which three protocols describe methods that can be used to secure user data for transmission across the internet? (Choose three.)
SMTP
*IPSEC
*SSL
*HTTPS
FTP
TFTP
7. What network layer security protocol can secure any application layer protocol used for communication?
HTTPS
IMAP
FTPS
*IPSEC
TLS
8. Which three items are normally included when a log message is generated by a syslog client and forwarded to a syslog server? (Choose three.)
*date and time of message
*ID of sending device
length of message
*message ID
checksum field
community ID
9. What AAA component assigns varying levels of rights to users of network resources?
auditing
accounting
*authorization
access control
authentication
acknowledgement
10. A network administrator is assigning network permissions to new groups of users and employing the principle of least privilege. Which two actions should the administrator take? (Choose two.)
*Provide users with only the access to resources required to do their jobs.
*Provide the minimum level of permissions required for users to do their jobs.
Remove all permissions from the users and grant permissions as they are requested.
Allow users to decide how much permission they need to accomplish their job tasks.
Provide full access to the users and gradually remove privileges over time.
11. A hacker has gained access to sensitive network files. In analyzing the attack, it is found that the hacker gained access over a wireless segment of the network. It is further discovered that the only security measure in place on the wireless network is MAC Address Filtering. How is it likely that the hacker gained access to the network?
The hacker used a software tool to crack the shared hexadecimal wireless key.
*The hacker obtained the MAC address of a permitted host, and cloned it on his wireless laptop NIC.
The attacker mounted a denial of service attack to overwhelm the firewall before penetrating the wireless LAN.
The hacker gained wireless access to the MAC address database and added his own MAC address to the list of permitted addresses.
12. What is the advantage of using WPA to secure a wireless network?
It uses a 128-bit pre-shared hexadecimal key to prevent unauthorized wireless access.
*It uses an advanced encryption key that is never transmitted between host and access point.
It is supported on older wireless hardware, thus providing maximum compatibility with enterprise equipment.
It requires the MAC address of a network device that is requesting wireless access to be on a list of approved MAC addresses.
13. hat are two potential problems with using tape media to back up server data? (Choose two.)
Tape is not a cost-effective means of backing up data.
Data tapes are difficult to store offsite.
*Data tapes are prone to failure and must be replaced often.
*Tape drives require regular cleaning to maintain reliability.
Backup logs are not available with tape backup solutions.
14. Refer to the exhibit. While the user on router A is connected to router B through telnet, the CTRL-SHIFT-6 x keystroke is entered. What effect does this have?
It logs the user out of router A.
*It suspends the connection to router B.
It closes the connection to router B.
It logs the user out of both router A and router B.
15. What two measures help to verify that server backups have been successfully completed? (Choose two.)
*reviewing backup logs
*performing a trial restore
performing full backups only
replacing tape backup with hard disk-based backup
using an autoloader when backups require more than one tape
16. Which three applications can be used for in-band management? (Choose three.)
FTP
*HTTP
*SNMP
*Telnet
TFTP
DHCP
17. Which two characteristics of network traffic are being monitored if a network technician configures the company firewall to operate as a packet filter? (Choose two.)
*ports
physical addresses
packet size
frame sequence number
*protocols
18. Which AAA service provides detailed reporting and monitoring of network user behavior, and also keeps a record of every access connection and device configuration change across the network?
authentication
accreditation
*accounting
authorization
19. While downloading an IOS image from a TFTP server, an administrator sees long strings of exclamation marks (!) output to the console. What does this mean?
*The transfer is working.
The TFTP server is not responding.
The IOS file is corrupt and is failing the checksum verification.
There is not enough space in flash to hold the image.
20. What does the command copy flash tftp accomplish?
*It copies the IOS in flash to a TFTP server.
It copies the startup-configuration file in flash to a TFTP server.
It copies the running-configuration file in flash to a TFTP server.
It copies the configuration register settings in flash to a TFTP server.
- Other useful questions that you might have missed here: All are correct.
1 When is the use of out-of-band network management necessary?
# when the management interface of a device is not reachable across the network
2 What are two potential problems with using tape media to back up server data? (Choose two.)
# Data tapes are prone to failure and must be replaced often.
# Tape drives require regular cleaning to maintain reliability.
CCNA 2 CAPTER 7
Posted by Ferisicity.blogspot.com on 22.43
1. A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the
network. How does the server determine what service is being requested
by the client?
applies the default service configured in directory services
uses ARP to discover the appropriate service from the local router
sends a request to the client asking for the appropriate service
*identifies the appropriate service from the destination port field
2. What is the function of the TCP three-way handshake?
It enables the synchronization of port numbers between source and destination hosts.
It immediately triggers the retransmission of lost data.
*It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon initial sequence numbers.
It identifies the destination application on the receiving host.
3. What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.)
connection oriented
full-duplex operation
*low overhead
*no flow control
*no error-recovery function
reliable transmission
4. Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair?
source port with destination port
source IP address with destination port
source IP address and destination IP address
*source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port
5. What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resource records with a DNS server whenever changes occur?
*dynamic
zone transfer
local recursive query
root domain query
top-level domain query
6. Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name?
dynamic lookup
forward lookup
resolution lookup
*reverse lookup
7. Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.)
maintaining a large number of cached DNS entries
maintaining the ISP server
*mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts
*forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server
forwarding all name resolution requests to root servers on the Internet
8. Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a server to another server?
SNMP
FTP
*SMTP
HTTPS
9. A manufacturing company subscribes to certain hosted services from their ISP. The services required include hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail. Which protocols represent these three key applications? (Choose three.)
*FTP
*HTTP
DNS
SNMP
DHCP
*SMTP
10. To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is based on what two factors? (Choose two.)
accessibility
adaptability
*availability
*reliability
scalability
11. Which two statements are true about the OSI and TCP/IP models? (Choose two.)
The two bottom layers of the TCP/IP model make up the bottom layer of the OSI model.
The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model and the OSI model is based on actual protocols.
*The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.
The TCP/IP model specifies protocols for the physical network interconnection.
*The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven layers.
12. What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP?
*caching-only
root
second-level
top-level
13. Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number? (Choose two.)
DNS - 25
FTP - 110
*HTTP - 80
POP3 - 25
*SMTP - 25
14. What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.)
It uses a different client request-server response process than HTTP uses.
It specifies additional rules for passing data between the application and data link layers.
*It supports authentication.
It allows more simultaneous connections than HTTP allows.
*It encrypts packets with SSL.
*It requires additional server processing time.
15. User1 is sending an e-mail to User2@cisco.com. What are two characteristics of the process of sending this data? (Choose two.)
It utilizes TCP port 110.
A TCP connection is established directly between the User1 and User2 client computers in order to send the e-mail message.
*It utilizes a store and forward process.
The same application layer protocol is used to send the e-mail and retrieve it from the destination server.
*SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers.
16. Which three fields do a TCP header and a UDP header have in common? (Choose three.)
*source port
window
*checksum
*destination port
acknowledgment number
sequence number
17. When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at the same time, which two values will likely be the same in all packets for each session? (Choose two.)
*IP address
*MAC address
session number
sequence number
18. What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.)
*Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability.
Reliability is measured based on the number of applications in use on the network.
The longer the MTTR, the greater the reliability.
*Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability.
*The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability.
An ISP guarantees the same level of reliability to all of its customers.
19. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?
Host1 sends an ACK message to Host2.
Host1 sends a SYN message to Host2.
Host1 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host2.
Host2 sends an ACK message to Host1.
Host2 sends a SYN message to Host1.
*Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1.
20. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a valid representation of source and destination sockets for this request?
Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80
Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1045
*Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80
Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1061
21. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.)
If the gateway address changes, the file will be updated dynamically.
*The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10.
*If the ping www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the Cisco web server IP address before DNS is queried.
The command ping mypc will use IP address 172.16.5.1.
Name to IP address mappings are added to the file after they are received from DNS.
applies the default service configured in directory services
uses ARP to discover the appropriate service from the local router
sends a request to the client asking for the appropriate service
*identifies the appropriate service from the destination port field
2. What is the function of the TCP three-way handshake?
It enables the synchronization of port numbers between source and destination hosts.
It immediately triggers the retransmission of lost data.
*It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon initial sequence numbers.
It identifies the destination application on the receiving host.
3. What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.)
connection oriented
full-duplex operation
*low overhead
*no flow control
*no error-recovery function
reliable transmission
4. Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair?
source port with destination port
source IP address with destination port
source IP address and destination IP address
*source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port
5. What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resource records with a DNS server whenever changes occur?
*dynamic
zone transfer
local recursive query
root domain query
top-level domain query
6. Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name?
dynamic lookup
forward lookup
resolution lookup
*reverse lookup
7. Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.)
maintaining a large number of cached DNS entries
maintaining the ISP server
*mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts
*forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server
forwarding all name resolution requests to root servers on the Internet
8. Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a server to another server?
SNMP
FTP
*SMTP
HTTPS
9. A manufacturing company subscribes to certain hosted services from their ISP. The services required include hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail. Which protocols represent these three key applications? (Choose three.)
*FTP
*HTTP
DNS
SNMP
DHCP
*SMTP
10. To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is based on what two factors? (Choose two.)
accessibility
adaptability
*availability
*reliability
scalability
11. Which two statements are true about the OSI and TCP/IP models? (Choose two.)
The two bottom layers of the TCP/IP model make up the bottom layer of the OSI model.
The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model and the OSI model is based on actual protocols.
*The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.
The TCP/IP model specifies protocols for the physical network interconnection.
*The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven layers.
12. What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP?
*caching-only
root
second-level
top-level
13. Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number? (Choose two.)
DNS - 25
FTP - 110
*HTTP - 80
POP3 - 25
*SMTP - 25
14. What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.)
It uses a different client request-server response process than HTTP uses.
It specifies additional rules for passing data between the application and data link layers.
*It supports authentication.
It allows more simultaneous connections than HTTP allows.
*It encrypts packets with SSL.
*It requires additional server processing time.
15. User1 is sending an e-mail to User2@cisco.com. What are two characteristics of the process of sending this data? (Choose two.)
It utilizes TCP port 110.
A TCP connection is established directly between the User1 and User2 client computers in order to send the e-mail message.
*It utilizes a store and forward process.
The same application layer protocol is used to send the e-mail and retrieve it from the destination server.
*SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers.
16. Which three fields do a TCP header and a UDP header have in common? (Choose three.)
*source port
window
*checksum
*destination port
acknowledgment number
sequence number
17. When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at the same time, which two values will likely be the same in all packets for each session? (Choose two.)
*IP address
*MAC address
session number
sequence number
18. What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.)
*Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability.
Reliability is measured based on the number of applications in use on the network.
The longer the MTTR, the greater the reliability.
*Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability.
*The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability.
An ISP guarantees the same level of reliability to all of its customers.
19. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?
Host1 sends an ACK message to Host2.
Host1 sends a SYN message to Host2.
Host1 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host2.
Host2 sends an ACK message to Host1.
Host2 sends a SYN message to Host1.
*Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1.
20. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a valid representation of source and destination sockets for this request?
Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80
Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1045
*Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80
Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1061
21. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.)
If the gateway address changes, the file will be updated dynamically.
*The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10.
*If the ping www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the Cisco web server IP address before DNS is queried.
The command ping mypc will use IP address 172.16.5.1.
Name to IP address mappings are added to the file after they are received from DNS.
Which two statements describe the FTP protocol? (Choose two.)
It uses well-known port 23.
The protocol interpreter is responsible for the data transfer function.
**The FTP client initiates the transfer of data when using a passive data connection.
**It requires two connections between client and server.
FTP servers open a well-known port on the client machine.
CCNA 2 CAPTER 6
Posted by Ferisicity.blogspot.com on 22.32
1. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
*It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.
2. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
*Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.
3. In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number (ASN)?
when the company's ISP adds connection points to the Internet
when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork
when more than one interior routing protocol is used
*when the company uses two or more ISPs
4. What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority?
Internet
intranet
virtual private network
*autonomous system
5. Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol?
*BGP
EIGRP
OSPF
RIP
6. What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data?
*border gateway router
DSLAM
web server
interior router
7. Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions?
source IP address
source MAC address
*destination IP address
destination MAC address
8. What statement is true regarding an AS number?
*AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use.
Interior routing protocols require registered AS numbers.
ISPs require all customers to have registered AS numbers.
All routers at an ISP must be assigned the same AS number.
9. Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs?
*BGP
EIGRP
OSPF
RIP v2
10. Consider this routing table entry:
R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1
What type of route is this?
a static route
a default route
*a RIP route
an OSPF route
an EIGRP route
a directly-connected route
11. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available?
in 30 seconds
in 60 seconds
in 90 seconds
*immediately
12. What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in RIPv1 updates?
metric
*subnet mask
area identification
hop count
autonomous system number
13. What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own autonomous systems? (Choose two.)
a home business with one ISP connection
*a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs
*a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through different ISPs
a large enterprise with two connections to the same ISP
a small ISP with a single Internet connection through a larger ISP
14. Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.)
They are created in interface configuration mode.
*They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.
They automatically become the default gateway of the router.
*They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S
They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shutdown.
15. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?
Exterior routing protocols are only used by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs.
Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations.
Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.
*Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.
16. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to the output that is shown?
routerA(config-router)# no version 2
routerA(config)# interface fa0/0
routerA(config-if)# ip address 172.19.0.0 255.255.0.0
*routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
routerA(config)# no ip default-gateway
17. Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers are running RIP. There are two paths from router A to the 192.168.3.0 network. Based on the output of the show ip route command on router A, which route was entered into the routing table and why?
A,B,C,D because it has the lowest administrative distance
A,E,F,G,D because it has the lowest administrative distance
*A,B,C,D because it has the lowest metric
A,E,F,G,D because it has the lowest metric
18. What is the purpose of the network command in configuring RIP?
to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol
to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers
*to identify the directly connected networks that will be announced in RIP updates
to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP
to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router
19. Refer to the exhibit. If connectivity between the two hosts is maintained, what is the maximum number of RIP routers that can be in the path from HostA to HostB?
14
*15
16
17
20. Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
drop the packet
forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.0
forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.64
*use the default route
It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
*It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.
2. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
*Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.
3. In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number (ASN)?
when the company's ISP adds connection points to the Internet
when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork
when more than one interior routing protocol is used
*when the company uses two or more ISPs
4. What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority?
Internet
intranet
virtual private network
*autonomous system
5. Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol?
*BGP
EIGRP
OSPF
RIP
6. What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data?
*border gateway router
DSLAM
web server
interior router
7. Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions?
source IP address
source MAC address
*destination IP address
destination MAC address
8. What statement is true regarding an AS number?
*AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use.
Interior routing protocols require registered AS numbers.
ISPs require all customers to have registered AS numbers.
All routers at an ISP must be assigned the same AS number.
9. Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs?
*BGP
EIGRP
OSPF
RIP v2
10. Consider this routing table entry:
R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1
What type of route is this?
a static route
a default route
*a RIP route
an OSPF route
an EIGRP route
a directly-connected route
11. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available?
in 30 seconds
in 60 seconds
in 90 seconds
*immediately
12. What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in RIPv1 updates?
metric
*subnet mask
area identification
hop count
autonomous system number
13. What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own autonomous systems? (Choose two.)
a home business with one ISP connection
*a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs
*a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through different ISPs
a large enterprise with two connections to the same ISP
a small ISP with a single Internet connection through a larger ISP
14. Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.)
They are created in interface configuration mode.
*They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.
They automatically become the default gateway of the router.
*They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S
They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shutdown.
15. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?
Exterior routing protocols are only used by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs.
Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations.
Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.
*Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.
16. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to the output that is shown?
routerA(config-router)# no version 2
routerA(config)# interface fa0/0
routerA(config-if)# ip address 172.19.0.0 255.255.0.0
*routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
routerA(config)# no ip default-gateway
17. Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers are running RIP. There are two paths from router A to the 192.168.3.0 network. Based on the output of the show ip route command on router A, which route was entered into the routing table and why?
A,B,C,D because it has the lowest administrative distance
A,E,F,G,D because it has the lowest administrative distance
*A,B,C,D because it has the lowest metric
A,E,F,G,D because it has the lowest metric
18. What is the purpose of the network command in configuring RIP?
to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol
to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers
*to identify the directly connected networks that will be announced in RIP updates
to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP
to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router
19. Refer to the exhibit. If connectivity between the two hosts is maintained, what is the maximum number of RIP routers that can be in the path from HostA to HostB?
14
*15
16
17
20. Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
drop the packet
forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.0
forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.64
*use the default route
A network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs to be forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in the routing table?
the route with the highest bandwidth
the route with the smallest administrative distance
#the route with the longest address and mask match to the destination
the route with the best combination of administrative distance and lowest cost
CCNA2 CHAPTER 5
Posted by Ferisicity.blogspot.com on 22.30
1. What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to "LAB_A"?
*Router> enable
Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router# configure router
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router(config)# host name LAB_A
2. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
*VTY interface
*console interface
Ethernet interface
secret EXEC mode
*privileged EXEC mode
router configuration mode
3. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
console
AUX
*Telnet
modem
4. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
View a list of commands entered in a previous session.
Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
*Set the command history buffer size.
*Recall previously entered commands.
Save command lines in a log file for future reference.
5. A router has a valid operating system and a configuration stored in NVRAM. When the router boots up, which mode will display?
global configuration mode
setup mode
ROM monitor mode
*user EXEC mode
6. Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?
transmission of data
reception of data
*clocking for the synchronous link
noise cancellation in transmitted data
7. In what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.)
*SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management.
SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a web browser.
SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited number of Cisco devices.
*SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands.
SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for initial basic device configuration.
8. What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.)
*host name
DHCP options
*domain name
interface IP addresses
*enable secret password
DNS server IP addresses
9. Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.)
ATM
CHAP
*Frame Relay
*HDLC
PAP
*PPP
10. What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet?
host name
domain name
DHCP address pool
*DNS server IP address
11. To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination?
*Tab
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-N
Up Arrow
Right Arrow
Down Arrow
12. How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure?
blinks rapidly amber
blinks rapidly green
*steady amber
steady green
13. Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch?
Open an SDM session with the switch from her desktop.
Telnet to the switch from the router console.
*Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.
The administrator must go to the switch location and make a console connection to check these settings.
14. Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
*platform
routing protocol
*connected interface of neighbor device
*device ID
IP addresses of all interfaces
enable mode password
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will correctly configure the serial interface on Router2?
Router2(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.11 255.255.255.252
Router2(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router2(config-if)# no shutdown
Router2(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.11 255.255.255.252
Router2(config-if)# no shutdown
Router2(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.9 255.255.255.252
Router2(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router2(config-if)# no shutdown
*Router2(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.9 255.255.255.252
Router2(config-if)# no shutdown
16. When utilizing SDM Express, which two configuration options allow a router serial interface to obtain an IP address without manually configuring it? (Choose two.)
Static IP Address
Frame Relay encapsulation
*IP Negotiated
HDLC encapsulation
*IP Unnumbered
17. Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway via the switch console port. The switch VLAN 1 interface is assigned IP address 192.168.5.68/26. What command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.1
*X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.126
X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.190
X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.192
X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.192 192.168.5.1
18. Refer to the exhibit. Users on both SW1 and SW2 report that they are unable to communicate with each other. A network administrator issues show ip interface brief commands on both routers to troubleshoot the connectivity between the two networks. What action will correct the connectivity issue?
Configure a default route on router RA pointing to router RB.
Modify the network address of the serial link from a /30 to a /24.
Issue a clock rate command on the s0/0/0 interface on router RA.
*Issue a no shutdown command on the s0/0/0 interface on router RB.
Issue a debug ip rip on both routers to verify that the routing protocol is functioning properly.
19. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the show port-security interface fastethernet0/1 command on the switch, which statement about the switch port is true?
The port has been shut down.
Only three unique MAC addresses are permitted to use this port.
*There are ten devices with different MAC addresses connected to this port.
Port security has been violated seven times on this port.
20. What step must be completed before port security can be enabled on an interface?
The interface must be shut down.
*The interface must be in access mode.
The maximum number of MAC addresses must be configured.
The violation mode must be configured.
21. Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to a switch on the same LAN via Telnet for configuration and management? (Choose three.)
Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1
Switch1(config)# exit
*Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch1(config)# line con 0
Switch1(config-line)# enable password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
*Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
*Switch1(config)# enable secret class
22. Which two statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)
All router commands are available.
Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.
*This is the default mode on an unconfigured router when first powered up.
Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.
*Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.
23. Which of the following identifies the correct items needed to initially configure a router?
1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
2) a straight through cable
3) the router's console port
1) PC's Ethernet port
2) a crossover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port
1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port
1) PC's Ethernet port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's console port
*1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's console port
1) PC's Ethernet port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port
24. An administrator enters the show ip route command into a router. What type of information will be displayed?
the current configuration stored in RAM
*the networks learned from other neighbors
the encapsulation and bandwidth of every interface
the private IP addresses translated to public IP addresses
Switch1(config)# exit
25.A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem?
The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch.
*There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.
The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the workstation NIC.
The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of the switch.
26 Which two statements are true about the NVRAM on a Cisco device?(Choose two.)
stores the routing table
**retains contents when power is removed
**stores the startup configuration file
contains the running configuration file
stores the ARP table
stores the routing table
**retains contents when power is removed
**stores the startup configuration file
contains the running configuration file
stores the ARP table
Selasa, 20 Januari 2015
CCNA2 CAPTER4
Posted by Ferisicity.blogspot.com on 19.14
1. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?
128
254
255
*256
512
1024
2. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
11110010
11011011
11110110
*11100111
11100101
11101110
3. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
*254
255
256
510
511
512
4. What is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
192.168.0.0
192.168.0.255
192.168.32.0
192.168.32.254
*192.168.32.255
7. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
*Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.
8. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
*The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
9. What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)
*to preserve registered public IP addresses
to allow users on the public Internet to access local networks
*to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet
to make routing protocols operate more efficiently
to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet
to reduce overhead and CPU usage on gateway routers
10. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?
64
96
*128
192
256
512
11. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit.
*The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.
Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.
*All subnets in a network are the same size.
Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.
12. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT?
Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP address.
A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP address.
*Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.
Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use for communications.
13. What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet?
The host IP address must be translated to an outside private address.
The host IP address must be translated to an inside local address.
The host IP address must be translated to an outside local address.
*The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.
14. What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?
127 to 191
127 to 192
*128 to 191
128 to 192
15. Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?
2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13
2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13
2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13
*2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13
16. Refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95
*192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128
17. Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type?
*inside global
outside local
outside global
private IP address
18. Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses?
255 and below
1023 and below
*1024 and above
64,000 and above
19. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. HostA has sent a request to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server?
10.1.1.2
172.30.20.1
*172.30.20.10
192.168.1.1
DsmbISP Chapter 4 – CCNA Discovery: Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP (Version 4.1)
1. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit.
The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.
Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.
Up to 24 bits can be used to identify unique networks.
Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.
2. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?
64
96
128
192
256
512
3. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?
128
254
255
256
512
1024
4. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
11110010
11011011
11110110
11100111
11100101
11101110
5. Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?
2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13
2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13
2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13
2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13
6. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
254
255
256
510
511
512
7. What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)
to preserve registered public IP addresses
to allow users on the public Internet to access local networks
to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet
to make routing protocols operate more efficiently
to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet
to reduce overhead and CPU usage on gateway routers
8. What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet?
The host IP address must be translated to an outside private address.
The host IP address must be translated to an inside local address.
The host IP address must be translated to an outside local address.
The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.
9. Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses?
255 and below
1024 and below
1025 and above
64,000 and above
10. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E
11. What is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
192.168.0.0
192.168.0.255
192.168.32.0
192.168.32.254
192.168.32.255
12.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
13. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.
14. What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?
127 to 191
127 to 192
128 to 191
128 to 192
15. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E
16.
Refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128
17. What are three advantages of NAT implementations? (Choose three.)
improved security
improved router performance
decreased processor load
improved scalability
universal application compatibility
sharing few public IP addresses with many hosts
18. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
6
14
30
62
19. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT?
Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP address.
A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP address.
Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.
Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use for communications.
20. Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type?
inside global
outside local
outside global
private IP address
128
254
255
*256
512
1024
2. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
11110010
11011011
11110110
*11100111
11100101
11101110
3. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
*254
255
256
510
511
512
4. What is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
192.168.0.0
192.168.0.255
192.168.32.0
192.168.32.254
*192.168.32.255
7. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
*Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.
8. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
*The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
9. What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)
*to preserve registered public IP addresses
to allow users on the public Internet to access local networks
*to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet
to make routing protocols operate more efficiently
to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet
to reduce overhead and CPU usage on gateway routers
10. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?
64
96
*128
192
256
512
11. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit.
*The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.
Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.
*All subnets in a network are the same size.
Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.
12. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT?
Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP address.
A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP address.
*Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.
Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use for communications.
13. What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet?
The host IP address must be translated to an outside private address.
The host IP address must be translated to an inside local address.
The host IP address must be translated to an outside local address.
*The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.
14. What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?
127 to 191
127 to 192
*128 to 191
128 to 192
15. Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?
2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13
2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13
2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13
*2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13
16. Refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95
*192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128
17. Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type?
*inside global
outside local
outside global
private IP address
18. Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses?
255 and below
1023 and below
*1024 and above
64,000 and above
19. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. HostA has sent a request to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server?
10.1.1.2
172.30.20.1
*172.30.20.10
192.168.1.1
DsmbISP Chapter 4 – CCNA Discovery: Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP (Version 4.1)
1. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit.
The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.
Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.
Up to 24 bits can be used to identify unique networks.
Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.
2. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?
64
96
128
192
256
512
3. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?
128
254
255
256
512
1024
4. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
11110010
11011011
11110110
11100111
11100101
11101110
5. Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?
2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13
2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13
2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13
2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13
6. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
254
255
256
510
511
512
7. What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)
to preserve registered public IP addresses
to allow users on the public Internet to access local networks
to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet
to make routing protocols operate more efficiently
to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet
to reduce overhead and CPU usage on gateway routers
8. What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet?
The host IP address must be translated to an outside private address.
The host IP address must be translated to an inside local address.
The host IP address must be translated to an outside local address.
The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.
9. Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses?
255 and below
1024 and below
1025 and above
64,000 and above
10. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E
11. What is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
192.168.0.0
192.168.0.255
192.168.32.0
192.168.32.254
192.168.32.255
12.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
13. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.
14. What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?
127 to 191
127 to 192
128 to 191
128 to 192
15. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E
16.
Refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128
17. What are three advantages of NAT implementations? (Choose three.)
improved security
improved router performance
decreased processor load
improved scalability
universal application compatibility
sharing few public IP addresses with many hosts
18. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
6
14
30
62
19. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT?
Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP address.
A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP address.
Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.
Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use for communications.
20. Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type?
inside global
outside local
outside global
private IP address
CCNA 2 CAPTER 3
Posted by Ferisicity.blogspot.com on 18.37
1.
A network technician is assigned to perform a site visit to a customer
location to determine the requirements for a network upgrade. In
addition to the currently installed equipment inventory, what other
information about the hosts and networking devices should the technician
obtain from the customer?
*any planned growth anticipated in the near future
2. Which three issues should be noted on the technician's site survey report? (Choose three.)
*unlabeled cables
*poor physical security of network devices
*lack of UPS for critical devices
3. What three things are included in a logical topology document? (Choose three.)
*the path that the data takes through a network
*the device names and Layer 3 addressing information
*the location of routing, network address translation, and firewall filtering
4. When designing a network upgrade, which two tasks should the onsite technician perform? (Choose two.)
*investigate and document the physical layout of the premises
*perform a site survey to document the existing network structure
5. What must be added when a network expands beyond the coverage area of the current telecommunications room?
*IDF
6. Which three items are typically found in an MDF? (Choose three.)
user workstations
*switches and routers
*the point of presence
7. Which device has the ability to break up broadcast and collision domains?
*router
8. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of twisted pair cable is used between each device?
*A=console, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
9. Why is it important to review the results of an on-site survey report with the customer before beginning the network design?
*to verify that the report accurately describes the current network and any plans for expansion
10.
Which two benefits can be gained by locating network equipment in a
telecommunications closet, rather than in a user area? (Choose two.)
*improved physical security
*centralized cable management
11. What does the use of redundant network components supply to a network?
*reliability
12.
Which type of cable has a solid copper core with several protective
layers including PVC, braided wire shielding, and a plastic covering?
*coaxial
13.
What is the term for the location at the customer premise where the
customer network physically connects to the Internet through a
telecommunications service provider?
*point of presence
14.
In what two ways will entering into a managed service agreement with an
ISP for a network upgrade affect the costs that are incurred by the
customer? (Choose two.)
*Network upgrade and maintenance costs will become predictable.
*The company will not need to spend a large amount of money to purchase the equipment upfront.
15. What is the benefit for a company to use an ISR router?
*An ISR provides the functionality of a switch, router, and firewall in one device.
16. It is said that the goal for availability of a communications system is "five-9s". What is meant by this?
*A network needs to be available 99.999% of the time.
17.
A client requires a networking device that is capable of expansion to
accomodate growing network demands. What characteristic must this device
have to meet this requirement?
*modular physical configuration
18. Refer to the exhibit. To allow IP communication between the two networks, what type of device is required?
*router
19. What are two advantages of having ISP-managed services? (Choose two.)
*predictable billing
*increase availability of help desk services
DsmbISP Chapter 3 – CCNA Discovery: Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP (Version 4.1)
1. Which type of cable has a solid copper core with several protective layers including PVC, braided wire shielding, and a plastic covering?
STP
UTP
coaxial
fiber optic
2. What is the benefit for a company to use an ISR router?
An ISR provides the functionality of a switch, router, and firewall in one device.
ISRs use a PC operating system for routing traffic, thus simplifying configuration and management.
An ISR is immune to security attacks by hackers and so replaces all other network security measures.
ISRs make routing decisions at OSI Layer 7, thus providing more intelligence to the network than do other routers.
3. It is said that the goal for availability of a communications system is "five-9s". What is meant by this?
A down time of .00001% is unacceptable.
A network needs to be available 99.999% of the time.
Five percent of all network expense covers 99% of user requirements.
The most critical time for network availability is from 9:00 to 5:00 p.m. five days a week.
The best time to do maintenance on a network is from 5:00 p.m. to 9:00 a.m. five days a week.
4. Which device has the ability to break up broadcast and collision domains?
repeater
hub
router
switch
5. Which two types of cable are used for initial router configuration? (Choose two.)
serial cable
rollover cable
straight-through cable
crossover cable
patch cable
console cable
6. Which three items are typically found in an MDF? (Choose three.)
user workstations
switches and routers
fax machines
network equipment racks
the point of presence
copier
7. A client requires a networking device that is capable of expansion to suit growing network demands. What type of device will suit this requirement?
a networking device with ports that can be activated and deactivated
a networking device with a modular physical configuration
a networking device with the ability to be turned off remotely
a networking device with a cost per port that is as high as possible
8. Which three issues should be noted on the technician’s site survey report? (Choose three.)
unlabeled cables
only two power outlets per wall in each room
poor physical security of network devices
horizontal cabling runs under 100 meters
lack of UPS for critical devices
two users sharing the same computer
9. In addition to the inventory sheet, what other information about the hosts and networking equipment should be documented by the on-site technician while performing the site survey?
any obsolete office equipment being stored
all product keys for site license software
any planned growth anticipated in the near future
the memory requirements for installed application software
10. A manufacturing company is in the process of a network upgrade. Which two statements are true about the phases of the upgrade process? (Choose two.)
Phase 1 is used to determine network requirements.
Phase 2 includes creating an analysis report.
Phase 3 is based on an implementation schedule that allows extra time for unexpected events.
Phase 4 is where prototypes are created and tested.
Phase 5 includes identifying and addressing any weaknesses in the design.
11. What does the use of redundant network components supply to a network?
scalability
manageability
compatibility
reliability
12.
Refer to the exhibit. What type of device is used to connect two networks?
hub
router
switch
access point
13. What are two advantages of having ISP-managed services? (Choose two.)
does not require leasing costs for service
can guarantee up to 99.999% availability
eliminates the need for data backup
increases availability of help desk services
does not require a Service Level Agreement
14. Which two benefits can be gained by locating network equipment in a telecommunications closet, rather than in a user area? (Choose two.)
faster communication speeds
improved physical security
more resistant to hacker attempts
centralized cable management
less electrical usage
15. What is the term for the location at the customer premise where the customer network physically connects to the Internet through a telecommunications service provider?
backbone area
point of presence
network distribution facility
intermediate distribution frame
16. What must be added when a network expands beyond the coverage area of the current telecommunications room?
MDF
POP
IDF
IXP
17. What three things are included in a logical topology document? (Choose three.)
the location of cables, computers, and other peripherals
the path that the data takes through a network
the wireless signal coverage area
the wiring closet and access point locations
the device names and Layer 3 addressing information
the location of routing, network address translation, and firewall filtering
18. When designing a network upgrade, which two tasks should the onsite technician perform? (Choose two.)
configure the servers and routers prior to delivery
upgrade the network operating system and all client operating systems
investigate and document the physical layout of the premises
document the final design for approval by the customer
perform a site survey to document the existing network structure
19. In what two ways will entering into a managed service agreement with an ISP for a network upgrade affect the costs that are incurred by the customer? (Choose two.)
Customer IT training costs will increase to enable operation of the new equipment.
The cost of hardware repairs and support will become the responsibility of the customer.
Network upgrade and maintenance costs will become predictable.
Staffing costs will increase because the customer will need to hire additional IT staff to complete the upgrade.
The company will not need to spend a large amount of money to purchase the equipment upfront.
20.
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of twisted pair cable is used between each device?
A=console, B=straight, C=crossover, D= crossover, E=straight
A=straight, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=console
A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
A=console, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
A=console, B=crossover, C=crossover, D=straight, E=straight
21. Why is it important to review the results of an on-site survey report with the customer before beginning the network design?
to inform the customer of how much time the upgrade will take
to discuss the implementation schedule for the new equipment
to verify that the report accurately describes the current network and any plans for expansion
to layout the new network design and discuss possible equipment upgrades and replacements
1. Which type of cable has a solid copper core with several protective layers including PVC, braided wire shielding, and a plastic covering?
STP
UTP
coaxial
fiber optic
2. What is the benefit for a company to use an ISR router?
An ISR provides the functionality of a switch, router, and firewall in one device.
ISRs use a PC operating system for routing traffic, thus simplifying configuration and management.
An ISR is immune to security attacks by hackers and so replaces all other network security measures.
ISRs make routing decisions at OSI Layer 7, thus providing more intelligence to the network than do other routers.
3. It is said that the goal for availability of a communications system is "five-9s". What is meant by this?
A down time of .00001% is unacceptable.
A network needs to be available 99.999% of the time.
Five percent of all network expense covers 99% of user requirements.
The most critical time for network availability is from 9:00 to 5:00 p.m. five days a week.
The best time to do maintenance on a network is from 5:00 p.m. to 9:00 a.m. five days a week.
4. Which device has the ability to break up broadcast and collision domains?
repeater
hub
router
switch
5. Which two types of cable are used for initial router configuration? (Choose two.)
serial cable
rollover cable
straight-through cable
crossover cable
patch cable
console cable
6. Which three items are typically found in an MDF? (Choose three.)
user workstations
switches and routers
fax machines
network equipment racks
the point of presence
copier
7. A client requires a networking device that is capable of expansion to suit growing network demands. What type of device will suit this requirement?
a networking device with ports that can be activated and deactivated
a networking device with a modular physical configuration
a networking device with the ability to be turned off remotely
a networking device with a cost per port that is as high as possible
8. Which three issues should be noted on the technician’s site survey report? (Choose three.)
unlabeled cables
only two power outlets per wall in each room
poor physical security of network devices
horizontal cabling runs under 100 meters
lack of UPS for critical devices
two users sharing the same computer
9. In addition to the inventory sheet, what other information about the hosts and networking equipment should be documented by the on-site technician while performing the site survey?
any obsolete office equipment being stored
all product keys for site license software
any planned growth anticipated in the near future
the memory requirements for installed application software
10. A manufacturing company is in the process of a network upgrade. Which two statements are true about the phases of the upgrade process? (Choose two.)
Phase 1 is used to determine network requirements.
Phase 2 includes creating an analysis report.
Phase 3 is based on an implementation schedule that allows extra time for unexpected events.
Phase 4 is where prototypes are created and tested.
Phase 5 includes identifying and addressing any weaknesses in the design.
11. What does the use of redundant network components supply to a network?
scalability
manageability
compatibility
reliability
12.
Refer to the exhibit. What type of device is used to connect two networks?
hub
router
switch
access point
13. What are two advantages of having ISP-managed services? (Choose two.)
does not require leasing costs for service
can guarantee up to 99.999% availability
eliminates the need for data backup
increases availability of help desk services
does not require a Service Level Agreement
14. Which two benefits can be gained by locating network equipment in a telecommunications closet, rather than in a user area? (Choose two.)
faster communication speeds
improved physical security
more resistant to hacker attempts
centralized cable management
less electrical usage
15. What is the term for the location at the customer premise where the customer network physically connects to the Internet through a telecommunications service provider?
backbone area
point of presence
network distribution facility
intermediate distribution frame
16. What must be added when a network expands beyond the coverage area of the current telecommunications room?
MDF
POP
IDF
IXP
17. What three things are included in a logical topology document? (Choose three.)
the location of cables, computers, and other peripherals
the path that the data takes through a network
the wireless signal coverage area
the wiring closet and access point locations
the device names and Layer 3 addressing information
the location of routing, network address translation, and firewall filtering
18. When designing a network upgrade, which two tasks should the onsite technician perform? (Choose two.)
configure the servers and routers prior to delivery
upgrade the network operating system and all client operating systems
investigate and document the physical layout of the premises
document the final design for approval by the customer
perform a site survey to document the existing network structure
19. In what two ways will entering into a managed service agreement with an ISP for a network upgrade affect the costs that are incurred by the customer? (Choose two.)
Customer IT training costs will increase to enable operation of the new equipment.
The cost of hardware repairs and support will become the responsibility of the customer.
Network upgrade and maintenance costs will become predictable.
Staffing costs will increase because the customer will need to hire additional IT staff to complete the upgrade.
The company will not need to spend a large amount of money to purchase the equipment upfront.
20.
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of twisted pair cable is used between each device?
A=console, B=straight, C=crossover, D= crossover, E=straight
A=straight, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=console
A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
A=console, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
A=console, B=crossover, C=crossover, D=straight, E=straight
21. Why is it important to review the results of an on-site survey report with the customer before beginning the network design?
to inform the customer of how much time the upgrade will take
to discuss the implementation schedule for the new equipment
to verify that the report accurately describes the current network and any plans for expansion
to layout the new network design and discuss possible equipment upgrades and replacements
CCNA2 capter2- Version 4.1
Posted by Ferisicity.blogspot.com on 17.46
The clients will not boot completely until the DHCP server resumes functioning.
The clients will attempt via the use of the IP address 127.0.0.1 to communicate with the other clients.
*All clients with link-local addresses will communicate with each other in a peer-to-peer manner.
*A link-local address will be automatically assigned to the hosts by the operating system.
A link-local process will use a DNS query to determine if any other device uses the same link-local address.
2. Which is a function of the transport layer of the OSI model?
routes data between networks
converts data to bits for transmission
*delivers data reliably across the network using TCP
formats and encodes data for transmission
transmits data to the next directly connected device
3. Which statement describes the process of escalating a help desk trouble ticket?
The help desk technican resolves the customer problem over the phone and closes the trouble ticket.
Remote desktop utilities enable the help desk technician to fix a configuration error and close the trouble ticket.
*After trying unsuccessfully to fix a problem, the help desk technician sends the trouble ticket to the onsite support staff.
When the problem is solved, all information is recorded on the trouble ticket for future reference.
4. Which two functions are provided by the upper layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
placing electrical signals on the medium for transmission
*initiating the network communication process
*encrypting and compressing data for transmission
segmenting and identifying data for reassembly at the destination
choosing the appropriate path for the data to take through the network
5. Which scenario represents a problem at Layer 4 of the OSI model?
An incorrect IP address on the default gateway.
A bad subnet mask in the host IP configuration.
*A firewall filtering traffic addressed to TCP port 25 on an email server.
An incorrect DNS server address being given out by DHCP.
6. A customer calls to report a problem accessing an e-commerce web site. The help desk technician begins troubleshooting using a top-down approach. Which question would the technician ask the customer first?
*Can you access other web sites?
Is there a firewall installed on your computer?
What is your IP address?
Is the link light lit on your NIC card?
7. What are two primary goals of the ISP help desk? (Choose two.)
conserving support resources
*network optimization
competitive scalability
*customer retention
8. What are two basic procedures of incident management? (Choose two.)
*opening a trouble ticket
using diagnostic tools to identify the problem
surveying network conditions for further analysis
configuring new equipment and software upgrades
*adhering to a problem-solving strategy
e-mailing a problem resolution to the customer
9. Which three command line utilities are most commonly used to troubleshoot issues at Layer 3? (Choose three.)
*ping
a packet sniffer
Telnet
*ipconfig
*traceroute
10. What is the correct encapsulation order when data is passed from Layer 1 up to Layer 4 of the OSI model?
*bits, frames, packets, segments
frames, bits, packets, segments
packets, frames, segments, bits
segments, packets, frames, bits
11. What are two functions of the physical layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
adding the hardware address
*converting data to bits
encapsulating data into frames
*signal generation
routing packets
12. A customer calls the help desk about setting up a new PC and cable modem and being unable to access the Internet. What three questions would the technician ask if the bottom-up troubleshooting approach is used? (Choose three.)
*Is the NIC link light blinking?
What is the IP address and subnet mask?
Can the default gateway be successfully pinged?
*Is the network cable properly attached to the modem?
*Is the Category 5 cable properly connected to the network slot on the PC?
Can you access your e-mail account?
13. A customer calls the ISP help desk after setting up a new PC with a cable modem but being unable to access the Internet. After the help desk technician has verified Layer 1 and Layer 2, what are three questions the help desk technician should ask the customer? (Choose three.)
*What is your subnet mask?
*What is your IP address?
Is the NIC link light blinking?
*Can you ping the default gateway?
Is the network cable properly attached to the cable modem?
Is the network cable correctly connected to the network port on the PC?
14.Which address is used by the router to direct a packet between networks?
source MAC address
destination MAC address
source IP address
*destination IP address
15. What is the first step that is used by a help desk technician in a systematic approach to helping a customer solve a problem?
identify and prioritize alternative solutions
isolate the cause of the problem
*define the problem
select an evaluation process
16. While troubleshooting a connectivity issue on a host, a network administrator issues the ping 127.0.0.1 command. The pings are unsuccessful. What is most likely the problem?
*The TCP/IP stack is not loaded properly.
The default gateway is down.
ARP is not functioning correctly.
An IP address has not been assigned to the host.
17. An accounting firm experiencing connectivity issues requires Level 3 support from the ISP. Which function requires Level 3 or higher support?
the diagnosis of basic network connectivity
the use of diagnostic tools to identify problems
*the installation and configuration of new equipment
the documentation of basic user issues
18. What Layer 1 problem can cause a user to lose Internet connectivity?
wrong subnet mask
wrong default gateway
*loose network cable
wrong MAC address
faulty printer cable
19. In what three ways do Level 1 and Level 2 help desk technicians attempt to identify a customer's problems? (Choose three.)
*talking to the customer on the telephone
upgrading hardware and software
*using various web tools
making an onsite visit
installing new equipment
*with remote desktop sharing applications
kunci jawaban CCNA2 CAPTER 1
Posted by Ferisicity.blogspot.com on 17.19
1. Which network support services team identifies whether the client site has existing network hardware and circuits installed?
customer service
help desk
network operations
planning and provisioning
2. Which network utility helps determine the location of network problems and identifies routers that packets travel across?
ping
ipconfig
tracert
netstat
nslookup
3. At which point do individuals and small businesses connect directly to the ISP network to obtain Internet access?
at a POP
at an IXP
at a Metro Ethernet link
on the ISP extranet
4. Which ISP network support systems team will typically contact the customer once a new circuit is ready and guide the customer in setting up passwords and other account information?
help desk
customer service network operations center
on-site installation team
planning and provisioning
5. When does a host device issue an ICMP echo request?
to initiate a ping to determine if a destination address is reachable
to respond to a DNS name query
to broadcast its identity to its locally connected neighbors
to request the MAC address of a destination IP address
6.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A cannot connect to the web server at 192.168.100.2. Based on the output of the tracert command, which device is most likely causing the problem?
Router A
Router B
Router C
Router D
Router E
Router F
7. What interconnects the Internet backbone?
MDFs
IXPs
POPs
satellite dishes
8. Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)
the number of routers between the source and destination device
the IP address of the router nearest the destination device
the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source
whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network
the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond
9. What was the original purpose of the Internet?
voice communication
marketing
research
commerce
10. Which network support services team is responsible for testing a new customer connection and for monitoring the ongoing operation of the link?
customer service
help desk
network operations
on-site installation
11. What three support service teams are commonly found within an ISP? (Choose three.)
help desk
computer support
application readiness
network operations center
planning and provisioning
implementation and documentation
12. The IT manager of a medium-sized business wishes to house the company-owned web servers in a facility that offers round-the-clock controlled access, redundant power, and high-bandwidth Internet access. Which ISP service will fulfill this need?
web hosting
planning and provisioning
application hosting
equipment collocation
Tier 1 ISP services
13. What units are used to measure Internet bandwidth?
bits per second
bytes per second
hertz
megabytes per second
packets per second
14. What are three main types of high-bandwidth connection options used by medium- to large-sized businesses? (Choose three.)
DSL
cable modem
Ethernet
metro Ethernet
T1
T3
15. What is the purpose of an RFC?
to provide the connection point for multiple ISPs to the Internet
to document the development and approval of an Internet standard
to indicate a contract that a customer signs when purchasing co-location services
to document agreements between an ISP and the customer
16.
Refer to the exhibit. A host is having problems maintaining a connection to a server at 192.168.100.2. Which statement best describes the output of the ping command?
The server is shut down.
The server has no route back to the host.
Two routers along the path are not responding to pings.
Some packets made it to the destination.
Ping services are not supported on the destination.
17. What is the maximum T1 transmission speed?
56 kbps
128 kbps
1.544 Mbps
2.4 Mbps
18. Which statement describes a function of a Tier 1 ISP?
peers with other similarly sized ISPs to form the global Internet backbone
uses the services of Tier 3 ISPs to connect to the global Internet backbone
pays Tier 2 ISPs for transit services to connect across continents
limits the offered services to small geographic areas
19. What feature enables network devices to be scalable?
a fixed number of interfaces
ease of repair
modularity
low maintenance requirements
low cost
customer service
help desk
network operations
planning and provisioning
2. Which network utility helps determine the location of network problems and identifies routers that packets travel across?
ping
ipconfig
tracert
netstat
nslookup
3. At which point do individuals and small businesses connect directly to the ISP network to obtain Internet access?
at a POP
at an IXP
at a Metro Ethernet link
on the ISP extranet
4. Which ISP network support systems team will typically contact the customer once a new circuit is ready and guide the customer in setting up passwords and other account information?
help desk
customer service network operations center
on-site installation team
planning and provisioning
5. When does a host device issue an ICMP echo request?
to initiate a ping to determine if a destination address is reachable
to respond to a DNS name query
to broadcast its identity to its locally connected neighbors
to request the MAC address of a destination IP address
6.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A cannot connect to the web server at 192.168.100.2. Based on the output of the tracert command, which device is most likely causing the problem?
Router A
Router B
Router C
Router D
Router E
Router F
7. What interconnects the Internet backbone?
MDFs
IXPs
POPs
satellite dishes
8. Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)
the number of routers between the source and destination device
the IP address of the router nearest the destination device
the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source
whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network
the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond
9. What was the original purpose of the Internet?
voice communication
marketing
research
commerce
10. Which network support services team is responsible for testing a new customer connection and for monitoring the ongoing operation of the link?
customer service
help desk
network operations
on-site installation
11. What three support service teams are commonly found within an ISP? (Choose three.)
help desk
computer support
application readiness
network operations center
planning and provisioning
implementation and documentation
12. The IT manager of a medium-sized business wishes to house the company-owned web servers in a facility that offers round-the-clock controlled access, redundant power, and high-bandwidth Internet access. Which ISP service will fulfill this need?
web hosting
planning and provisioning
application hosting
equipment collocation
Tier 1 ISP services
13. What units are used to measure Internet bandwidth?
bits per second
bytes per second
hertz
megabytes per second
packets per second
14. What are three main types of high-bandwidth connection options used by medium- to large-sized businesses? (Choose three.)
DSL
cable modem
Ethernet
metro Ethernet
T1
T3
15. What is the purpose of an RFC?
to provide the connection point for multiple ISPs to the Internet
to document the development and approval of an Internet standard
to indicate a contract that a customer signs when purchasing co-location services
to document agreements between an ISP and the customer
16.
Refer to the exhibit. A host is having problems maintaining a connection to a server at 192.168.100.2. Which statement best describes the output of the ping command?
The server is shut down.
The server has no route back to the host.
Two routers along the path are not responding to pings.
Some packets made it to the destination.
Ping services are not supported on the destination.
17. What is the maximum T1 transmission speed?
56 kbps
128 kbps
1.544 Mbps
2.4 Mbps
18. Which statement describes a function of a Tier 1 ISP?
peers with other similarly sized ISPs to form the global Internet backbone
uses the services of Tier 3 ISPs to connect to the global Internet backbone
pays Tier 2 ISPs for transit services to connect across continents
limits the offered services to small geographic areas
19. What feature enables network devices to be scalable?
a fixed number of interfaces
ease of repair
modularity
low maintenance requirements
low cost
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FINAL EXAM CCNA 2